13-10a Time preference per se doesn’t explain anything

I wondered what brought about the seemingly lowered time preference in the modern world as compared with the ancient and medieval world—but I just realized that such comparisons are meaningless, because available knowledge (manifested and expressed via capital) differed.revisit

Related:

• 1-2g2b Humans are significant insofar as we can create knowledge
• 13-2a The supply of capital goods enforces narrower limits than knowledge
• 13-9a3 Praxeology is concerned with preference as revealed through choice